Thoughtful billionaires, concerned that Clarence Thomas is morose following SCOTUS’ 8-1 rejection of his Second Amendment jurisprudence today, have briefly broken away from their Nazi memorabilia collections to give him a customized hovercraft.
Does the text/history/tradition analysis presume that all state laws (and common law as practiced at the time) was entirely conformant to the 2nd amendment? Even though 2A wasn't even incorporated against the states? It seems reasonable that the newly-passed 2A might cut against extant state law.