Hey quick question: When a poor person is fined $1,000 and it's "impossible" for them to come up with the money, do judges usually just waive the usual rules and cut them a break? I don't own a TV or know what newspapers are!
The answer is no. The comments to this are a lot of yes’s but they all rely on a poor person having the money to afford a good enough lawyer. Which most do not.
You can usually get a reduction if you can prove your case for why you can’t afford it. Usually won’t waive the whole amount since some penalty should be applied for not obeying rules
my understanding is that it absolutely is the case almost everywhere, as long as the judge is convinced that you are "very sorry" and "gave it a try" and "won't do it again"
sometimes the judge and the prosecutor will even take you out to lunch if you're really broke
If the fine is court fines & fees courts here will often drop them if someone is indigent. If it’s a fine as a sentence then they’ll convert it to community service. But it all depends on jurisdiction, law isn’t real
In this case, it's not that he doesn't have the money, it's that he doesn't have it in cash and no one will loan him the cash using his other assets as collateral. He could sell assets to come up with the cash but doesn't want to.
I didnt have the $$ and was ordered 800 hours working at a food bank. The food bank hired me for the supervisor position once the 800 was completed. Also learned how to dance a forklift💪💪💪