Reposted by Jeffrey Vagle
CNN fact checked whether I in fact caught walleye while wearing a specific hat more thoroughly than the NYT checked whether the “I dont vote” guy actually voted.
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And a Happy Independence Day to the brigades from ME, NH, VT, MA, RI , CT, NY, NJ, DE, PA, WV, OH, MI, and MN who threw the secesh back from whence they came.
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Happy Independence Day, especially to the men of the 20th Maine.
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Has he no trilby stage?
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The president is presumably immune. And under the UCMJ, the soldier has a *duty* to disobey the manifestly unlawful order, so they do not face any liability either, right?
Do you think a president like Trump would allow for that?
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Does the possibility of presidential pardons eliminate this process? That depends on the nature and timing of the pardons, I suppose.
But what happens to the soldier who refuses to follow a manifestly unlawful (i.e., a war crime) order from a future president?
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A July 4 thread on the UCMJ, a duty to obey/disobey unlawful orders, and the effects the Trump v. US decision might have on military decision making.
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By eliminating criminal liability for official acts, the Roberts Court has created a dangerous moral hazard: A president can issue unlawful/criminal orders to the military, and all of the subsequent risk is borne by the individual soldiers. This encourages recklessness in a president.
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So which path does this framework encourage a soldier to take?
It seems that there's less risk to the soldier if they just follow orders. But we've seen where this path can lead.
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Thus, unless the orders constitute a defined war crime, a soldier must either obey those orders (risking possible liability), or disobey those orders (also risking possible liability).
In the latter case, a military court decides on the lawfulness of the original orders.
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But if you're reading carefully, you might notice there's something missing from this analysis: If there is a duty under the UCMJ to follow lawful orders, is there a reciprocal duty under these rules to disobey *un*lawful orders?
The answer is no, unless those orders are "manifestly unlawful."
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Some Vietnam era cases met this standard, so the "just following orders" defense was not given to the jury as an option. See U.S. v. Griffen, 39 C.M.R. 586 (1968).
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"...so that a man of ordinary sense and understanding would know as soon as he heard the order read or given that it was illegal, will afford no protection for a homicide, provided the act...has all the ingredients in it which may be necessary to constitute the same crime in law.”
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From AmJur Homicide:
"But an order which is illegal in itself and not justified by the rules and usages of War, or which is, in its substance, clearly illegal..."
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What reaches this level of egregiousness? Mainly war crimes as defined in military field manuals.
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One def:
“Under this rule, the law presumes that the soldier obeys unlawful orders because he mistakenly believes, honestly and reasonably, in their lawfulness. This presumption is rebutted only when the acts ordered were so egregious as to carry their wrongfulness on their face."
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This is the "just following orders" defense, which is a valid defense under the UCMJ unless the orders were "manifestly unlawful."
So what does "manifestly unlawful" mean, and how do military subordinates recognize it as such?
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The current rule holds that "It is a defense to any offense that the accused was acting pursuant to orders unless the accused knew the orders to be unlawful or a person of ordinary sense and understanding would have known the orders to be unlawful.”
Rule for Courts-Martial 916(d)
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Thinking more about UCMJ, IHL, etc., re the Trump v. US holding, esp. in questions of law governing unlawful orders.
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Reposted by Jeffrey Vagle
Matthew Walther is a tradcath weirdo who absolutely welcomes authoritarianism
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Reposted by Jeffrey Vagle
Fantastic post from @rtushnet.bsky.social in what I’m conceiving of as The Context-Specific First Amendment (an area where we’re still doing actual law, for now)
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So much glorious facial hair in that film.
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